ix. 14 (in both versions) and in Neh. ix. 33. ?”?????±?????‚ ???????¶ also occurs in
Bar. ii. 9, in that part of Baruch which is almost certainly a
translation from the Hebrew. Ball (_Speaker's Comm._) gives a similar
phrase from the _Iliad_, and Bissell a still more apposite one from
_Il._ IV. 28, to shew that it is not unknown in pure Greek. Gaster's
Aramaic has simply ?? not ?¦??.
v. 30 ?????, ??. ??™???±???????‰ governs the genitive correctly, but ???…???„?·????‰,
coupled with it, is made to govern the same noun. Exigencies of
translation might easily cause this awkwardness, but hardly original
Greek composition.
v. 31 ?????. ???±??¶ ????¦?? = ?•?°?¦?·???????” So translated in II. Chron. vi. 16, 17 at
the beginning of the verse, as here; it occurs again in vv. 33 and 41 in
both versions, as also in ix. 15, 17. It is not a very natural beginning
of a Greek sentence.
v. 32 ?????, ??. Why ??????????„?±?„??¶??, a title which does not seem very applicable
to the Babylonians? It may be merely a rendering of ?????? as in Ezra iv.
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