12, 15. The Vulgate here has 'pr?¦varicator.' In Gaster's Aramaic the
verse is different. But _cf._ use of ??????·?»?»???„?????‰????????? in Eph. ii. 12 of
those who had never belonged to Israel.
v. 33 ?????, ??. ??????? ??”???„???? ???????–?? ?????????–???±?? looks very like a translation of
???µ?™?? ????? ?•??, an idiom used in II. Chron. xxxv. 3, 15 in the sense of
'cannot,' followed by a verb in the infinitive. _Cf._ Heb. ix. 5.
v. 34 ?????, ??. ?•??°?‚ ?„??»???‚ = ???°?›???????” or ????? ?¶?¦?·?— as in II. Chron. xii. 12,
Ps. xv. 11. ?”???±?????µ???¬??????‚ ?????… ?„????? ?????±???®???·??. This curious expression may be
the rendering of such a phrase as that in I. Kings xv. 19,
?”???¤?µ?????” ???¶?? ?‘?°???????™???°????, there translated by the same words; also in Jer. xi. 10.
v. 36 ?????, ??. ??????„???± ?„????¦ ????????±??????¦, as in viii. 10, xii. 3, both ?????.
v. 37 ?????, ??. ?¤?±???µ????????¶ ?????. Did the translators read ?‘?›?? for ???›???
v. 38 ?????, ??. ???±??????¶???±??. _Cf._ Lev. ii. 9, 11, ?§???? ???©?” being similarly
translated.
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