???±???????‰ is also used in the same sense in I. Esd. iv. 52.
Deissmann has an interesting 'study' of this word in his _Bible Studies_
(Eng. transl., Edinb. 1901, p. 135).
v. 40 ?????, ??. ???????????????... ??„?????????µ?? = ???—???™... ???¤? ?™. ??????„?µ?»????±?? is thought
by Ball to have arisen from some confusion between ?›???™?? and ?›????, but
this is dubious. Marshall (Hastings' _D.B._ IV. 755b) suggests ?©?????? in
Kal or Piel.
v. 44 ?????, ??. ??????????????????µ??????, Grotius (in _Critici Sacri_) says "Expressit
Hebr?¦um ?”?????” quod est in Ps. lx. 3 (5) et alibi." The verb is so
translated in Exod. ix. 16.
v. 49 ?????, ??. The apparent Grecism of ????± ???µ????¶ ?„???? ????¶?±?????±?? occurs in the
LXX of Ezek. xxxviii. 6 and elsewhere. ???…?????±?„????· ??„???±, Ball suggests
?™???“ ???—???™ from Ps. xlix. 18. Gaster gives ? ?—?™?? ?¦??. ??????µ?„?????±???µ Gaster
characterises as a "senseless" rendering of ?•???™?¦??? ?™?? "and it cooled
down," which word certainly gives an excellent sense.
v.
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