" It is stated, however, in Hastings' _D.B._ (IV.
911b, 913b) that ??????„?¬???±?? and ???µ?„???·?„?±?? were identified at Alexandria,
in which case they may have been used here as rough equivalents for the
translation of some Semitic words, such as ?—?„???¶?? and ???°?????” in Isai. v.
10 and I. Kings xviii. 32 respectively. The ??????¶ of v. 27 is also both
Babylonian and Alexandrian (_see_ Hastings' _D.B._ iv. 904a). The
signs, from this source, of local origin must not therefore be pressed.
_Theodotion._ From what little we know of this translator's life, it is
not improbable that he made his version at Ephesus.
The genitive form ???±?‡?±?????·?‚ in v. 26, thought to be Ionic, may lend a
little support to this. _Cf._ Heb. xi. 34, Rev. xiii. 14, in A; B here
failing; yet it is found in B, by the first corrector, in St. Luke xxi.
24. But _cf._ Swete's _Introd._ p. 304. On the other hand, the use of
???????±?„?± in v. 32 (?? only) for 'slaves' is given by Deissmann (p. 160) as
an example of Egyptian usage. It is found in Gen.
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