3 ??. With ??????±???±????¶???„??, _cf._ ?????›?·???¶???” ?‘?? of Deut. xxxii. 23 ("I will
spend my arrows upon," etc.). ?”?±???±???¬?‰ occurs with ????? and ??????? in N.T.
Greek, but apparently not with ?µ??°?‚, nor yet in the canonical O.T.
Deissmann, however, attempts to shew that this use of ?µ??°?‚, instead of
'dativus commodi,' is an Alexandrian idiom (_Bible Studies_, Eng. tr.,
Edinb. 1900, p. 127). ?›???? is also used in Aramaic in the same sense in
Pahel.
v. 6 ?????. The same phrase as the last recurs, inverted: ?µ??°?‚ ?±????„?????
???±???±????¶?„?±??.
v. 7 ?????. Here the accusative after ??????????‰ might be taken as favouring a
Greek original, since ????? for ?‘ would seem natural in a translation of
Hebrew or Aramaic.
v. 7 ??; v. 11 ?????, ??; v. 27 ?????. The occurrence of ???±?????µ??¦ in these verses
suggests a rendering of ???·???°?‘?????? which is used several times in the
Aramaic portion of Daniel, while it never occurs in the vocative in the
Hebrew portion. This indication, small though it be, inclines of course
towards an Aramaic rather than a Hebrew original.
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