vv. 14, 28 ??; vv. 15, 33 ?????. The ???±??¶ ?????????µ?„?? of these verses is
suggestive of ?•?·?™?°?”???™ in the original.
v. 18 ??. (?”???»???‚) ?????????? ?µ??·?‚ has an 'ungreek' look, and may have been a
rendering of ?¦?·?“ ???¶?—???“, as in Exod. xiv. 28. ?—?“?? (?—?“?”) for ?—?–?? (?—?–?”)
might account for the king's 'rejoicing' in ????? becoming his 'seeing' in
??.
v. 19 ?????, ??. The reading of ??”???±?†???‚ by ?? instead of ?????»???‚ by ????? may be
accounted for by supposing ?©?§?¤?? to have been substituted for ?©?§????, as
suggested in Hastings' _Dict._
v. 26 ?????, ??. The use of ???±??· instead of ??µ???±, to begin a clause signifying
purpose, is very Hebraic.
v. 27 ?????, ??. The ingenious idea of A. Scholz that ?„??° ???µ???¬?????±?„?± ??‘????¶?? and
????? ?„?±??¦?„?± ??????µ???·?µ are renderings of ?”?¤?—?“?™?›?? and ?”?¤?—?“???? respectively, ?” in
the first case being the article, and in the second merely the
interrogative particle, like other conjectures on p. 202 of his
_Commentary_, can hardly stand.
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