He appears to have forgotten that the
article must not be placed before a noun with a pronominal suffix.[68]
v. 28 ?????, ??. ??????? looks like a translation of ?¦?? (_cf._ Sus. 29). In ?????
it is used against Daniel, and in ?? against the king.
v. 33 ?????. Delitzsch suggests (p. 27) ?”?©?©?™ ?•?™?”?™ ?•?™?”?™ ?‘?™?•?? for the
beginning of this verse, with much likelihood.
v. 36 ??. The reading ?‡?µ????????‚ in A for ???????…?†??†?‚ may have arisen from ?§?“?§?“?•
being corrupted by homoeoteleuton into ?§?“?•, for which A has read ?™?“?•. A.
Scholz's notion of explaining this by Isai. xlv. 1 (where ???µ?????¬ is used,
not ?‡?µ????) is unsatisfactory.
v. 40 ?????, ??. The attempt to explain (Marshall in Hastings' _D.B._ art.
_Bel and the Dragon_) the 'in medio' of Vulg. v. 39 by a reading ?‘?’?• for
?‘?’?‘ is not very likely, since they do not occur in corresponding
clauses.
v. 42 ?????. ??????®???±???µ?? is used of the king here in a good sense, in v. 22 in
a bad one. This is possibly a rendering of ?”???¦?™?? in the latter case, of
?”?¦???” in the former.
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